CCNA 1 (Version 7.00) ITNv7 Complete Final Exam Answers (2023)

CCNA 1 - ITN Introduction to Networking (Version 7.00) - ITNv7 Final Exam Complete Answers

Number of questions: 60; Passing Score: 80-100%

1. What two types of ICMPv6 messages must be allowed by IPv6 access control lists to enable layer 3 address to layer 2 MAC address resolution? (Choose two.)

• neighbor asks
• echo requests
• Neighbor Announcements
• echo responses
• Router Requests
• Router Ads

2. What range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

• FEC0::/10
• FDEE::/7
• FE80::/10
• FF00::/8

Explain:
Link-local addresses are in the range FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the FEC0::/10 prefix range, but the IETF deprecated these addresses in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

3. What is the interface ID of an IPv6 capable interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 if the interface ID is generated by the EUI-64 process?

• 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
• 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
• C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
• 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

4. An organization gets a block of IPv6 addresses from 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in interface id space?

• 256
• 512
• 1024
• 4096

5. View the exhibition. If Host A sends an IP packet to Host B, what is the destination address in the frame as it leaves Host A?

• DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
• 172.168.10.99
• CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
• 172.168.10.65
• BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
• AA: AA: AA: AA: AA: AA

Explain:
When a host sends information to a remote network, the Layer 2 frame header contains a source and destination MAC address. The source address is the source host device. The destination address is the interface of the router connecting to the same network. In case Host A is sending information to Host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB :BB:BB.

6. If a switch configuration includes a user-defined per-port error threshold, what switching method will the switch use when the error threshold is reached?

• cut
• save and forward
• fast forward
• fragment free

7. Which two statements about MAC and IP addresses in data transmission without NAT are correct? (Choose two.)

• Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant throughout the path to a destination host.
• Destination MAC addresses never change in a frame traversing seven routers.
• A new destination IP address is required each time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address.
• Source and destination MAC addresses have local meaning and change each time a frame is transmitted from one LAN to another.
• A packet traversing four routers changed the destination IP address four times.

8. What is a key feature of the data link layer?

• It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent 1 and 0 in the media.
• Converts a data bit stream into a predefined code.
• It protects the upper layer protocol from knowing the physical medium used in the communication.
• It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides how to forward the packet to a remote network.

9. What are the three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

• The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
• A device listens and waits until the medium is not busy before sending.
• After a collision is detected, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has elapsed.
• All devices in a segment see the data traveling through the network medium.
• A jam signal indicates that the collision has been resolved and the medium is not busy.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

Explanation:The Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) process is a contention-based media access control mechanism used in shared media access networks such as Ethernet. When a device needs to transmit data, it listens and waits until the medium is available (silent) before sending the data. If two devices transmit at the same time, a collision will occur. Both devices detect the collision in the network. When a device detects a collision, it stops the data transfer process, waits a random amount of time, and tries again.

10. What are the two main tasks of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)

• error detection
• Frame Limit
• access media
• data encapsulation
• logical addressing

11. What two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

• netstat-s
• Print route
• show broken ip
• netstat-r
• rail

Explain:
On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host's routing table. Both commands produce the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat –s command is used to display per-log statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path a packet takes to its destination.

12. What are the two functions of the network layer? (Choose two.)

• Route data packets to destination hosts on other networks.
• Put data in the middle of the network
• Transporting data between processes running on the source and destination hosts
• provide dedicated end-to-end connections
• Provide end devices with a unique network identifier

13. Which two statements describe the capabilities of an IPv4 routing table in a router? (Choose two.)

• Directly connected interfaces have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S.
• If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the highest metric value is included in the routing table.
• The netstat -r command can be used to display a router's routing table.
• The routing table lists the MAC addresses for each active interface.
• Stores information about routes derived from the router's active interfaces.
• If a default static route is configured on the router, an entry with source code S is added to the routing table.

14. How does the service password encryption command improve password security on Cisco routers and switches?

• Requires the use of encrypted passwords when remotely connecting to a router or switch using Telnet.
• Encrypts passwords stored in router or switch configuration files.
• Requires a user to enter encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.
• Encrypts passwords when sent over the network.

Explain:The service password-encryption command encrypts plain-text passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.

15. Why does a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

• so that the switch can send broadcast frames to the connected PCs
• to allow the switch to act as the default gateway
• so that the switch can be managed remotely
• so that the switch can receive frames from the connected PCs

Explanation:A switch as a Layer 2 device does not need an IP address to transmit frames to connected devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely over the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be for a virtual interface, not a physical interface. Routers, not switches, act as the default gateways.

16. Which characteristic describes identity theft?

• Using stolen credentials to access private data
• Software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
• Software that detects fast-moving threats
• A tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access to an organization's network

17. Match each description to the appropriate term. (Not all options are used.)

18. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. What information is added to a frame's address field during the encapsulation of this request to indicate the destination?

• the network domain of the target host
• die IP-Address of the Standard-Gateways
• the MAC address of the target host
• die MAC-Address of the Standard-Gateways

Explanation:A frame is encapsulated with source and destination MAC addresses. The source device does not know the MAC address of the remote host. The source sends an ARP request and the router responds to it. The router responds with the MAC address of its interface, which is connected to the same network as the source.

19. Data is sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the role of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

• The source port field identifies the running application or service that is processing the data coming back to the PC.
• The TCP process running on the PC randomly chooses the destination port when establishing a session with the server.
• UDP segments are encapsulated in IP packets for transport across the network.
• The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server that is processing the data.
• TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires less network overhead.
• The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

Explanation:Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service processing the data. The sending device will add the source port number and it will be the destination port number when returning the requested information. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated in IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is required. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports on which a server application or service listens for requests.

20. Map each description to the appropriate TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.)

21. Check out the exhibition. What two network addresses can be assigned to the network with 10 hosts? Your responses should waste as few addresses as possible, not reuse addresses already assigned, and stay in the 10.18.10.0/24 address range. (Choose two.)

• 18.10.200/28
• 18.10.208/28.10
• 10.18.10.240/27
• 18.10.10.200/27
• 10.18.10.224/27
• 10.18.10.224/28

Explanation:Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are used for the leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the core network. Since 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is required. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.

22. Check out the exhibition. A company uses the address block 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal sized subnets and provide enough host addresses for each visible subnet?

• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.224

Explanation:The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts, so the subnet mask must be at least 7 host bits (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 host bits, but this does not meet the requirement to provide the maximum number of subnets.

23. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnets in a small site. The website has the following networks and device numbers:

Subnet A: IP phones: 10 addresses Subnet B: PCs: 8 addresses Subnet C: Printers: 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate for all three subnets?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

Explain:
If the same mask is used, the network with the largest number of hosts should be examined to determine the number of hosts. Since there are 10 hosts, 4 host bits are required. The subnet mask /28 or 255.255.255.240 would be appropriate for use on these networks.

24. Associate each element with the type of topology diagram in which it is usually identified. (Not all options are used.)

25. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

• IP addresses
• Interface Descriptions
• The MAC address
• The Next-Hop Address
• Tier-1-Status
• Speed ​​and duplex settings

Explanation:The show ip interface brief command displays the IP address of each interface and the operational status of the Layer 1 and Layer 2 interfaces. To view interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the interface show running-config command. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the show ip route command, and an interface's MAC address can be displayed with the show Interfaces command.

26. A user complains that an external web page takes longer than normal to load. The webpage will eventually load on the user's computer. What tool should the technician with administrator rights use to find out where the problem lies in the network?

• pipe
• nslookup
• rail
• ipconfig /displaydns

27. A network engineer examines the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. What two aspects should be considered before implementing fiber media? (Choose two.)

• Fiber optic cabling requires different splicing and termination know-how than copper cabling.
• Fiber optic cables require special grounding to be EMI immune.
• Fiber optic cables are prone to signal loss due to RFI.
• Fiber optic cables are able to withstand rough treatment.
• Fiber optic cables offer higher data capacity but are more expensive than copper cables.

28. What technique is used on UTP cable to protect against signal crosstalk interference?

• Wrap an aluminum shield around the wire pairs
• twist the wires together in pairs
• Terminating the cable with special grounded plugs
• Wrap the cables in a flexible plastic wrap

Explanation:To prevent the effects of crosstalk, the wires in the UTP cable are twisted pairs. By twisting the wires, the magnetic fields in each wire cancel each other out.

29. A network administrator designs the layout of a new wireless network. What are three areas to consider when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

• extensive cabling
• mobility options
• Packet collision
• interference
• Security
• coverage area

Explanation:The three problem areas for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and the security of the network. Extensive cabling is not a problem for wireless networks because a wireless network requires minimal cabling to provide wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of wireless network pain points.

30. Assign an appropriate IP address to each description. (Not all options are used.)

31. Users report slow network access. After interviewing employees, the network administrator discovered that an employee had downloaded a third-party scanning program onto the printer. What kind of malware can be introduced that slows down network performance?

• Virus
• Wurm
• identity fraud
• Spam

Explanation:A cybersecurity specialist must be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.

32. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

• A student uses a VoIP phone in the classroom to call home. The unique identifier written on the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
• A student plays a short web-based movie with sound. Film and sound are encoded in the transport layer header.
• A student opened two web browser windows to access two websites. The transport layer ensures that the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
• A company employee accesses a web server located in a company network. The transport layer formats the screen so that the webpage is displayed correctly, no matter what device is used to view the website.

Explain:
The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

33. See exhibition. Host B on the Teachers subnet transmits a packet to Host D on the Students subnet. What Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are included in the PDUs transmitted from Host B to the router?

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Destination address for envelope 2 = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200

34. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

• Amplification of a signal by a network device
• Loss of signal from one cable pair to the other
• Time until a signal reaches its destination
• Loss of signal strength with distance

35. See exhibition. An administrator attempts to configure the switch but receives the error message displayed on the screen. What is the problem?

• The full configure terminal command must be used.
• The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
• The administrator must first enter the privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
• The administrator must connect through the console port to access the global configuration mode.

36. What two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• POP
• DNS
• Ethernet

37. A company has a file server that shares a folder called Public. The network security policy specifies that the public folder has read-only permissions for anyone who can log on to the server, while edit permissions are granted only to the network administrators group. What component is covered by the AAA Network Service Framework?

• automation
• accounting
• authentication
• permit

After a user has successfully authenticated (logged into the server), authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (e.g., read or edit) they can perform.

38. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to enable the transmission of messages over a network? (Choose three.)

• message size
• message encoding
• connector specifications
• media selection
• delivery options
• Installation of terminals

39. What are the two characteristics of intellectual property? (Choose two.)

• does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
• works independently of network media
• Retransmit packets when errors occur
• reassembles out-of-order packets in the correct order at the receiver end
• Ensure package delivery

Explain:
Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best-effort protocol. This means that IP does not require an end-to-end connection, nor does it guarantee packet delivery. IP is also media independent, meaning that it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.

40. An employee of a large company remotely logs in to the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is on an important video conference with a client about a big sale. It is important that the video quality during the meeting is excellent. The employee does not know that after a successful login, the connection to the company's ISP failed. However, the secondary connection was activated within seconds. The interruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.
What three network properties are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

• Security
• Service quality
• scalability
• electrical network
• integrity
• fault tolerance

41. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cable? (Choose two.)

• improper termination
• bad shielding of the cable
• Installation of cables in cable ducts
• inferior cables or connectors
• Loss of light over long distances

42. Which subnet would contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

• 192.168.1.64/26
• 192.168.1.32/27
• 192.168.1.32/28
• 192.168.1.64/29

Explanation:For the 192.168.1.64/26 subnet, there are 6 bits for host addresses, resulting in 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for that subnet. Therefore, the host address range for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

43. See exhibition. Based on the result, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

• There is no default gateway configured for this host.
• There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
• There is a connection between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
• The connectivity between these two hosts enables video conference calls.
• The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

Explain:
The output shows a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be noted that there are 4 hops between them and the average transmission time is 1 millisecond. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between hosts.

44. Which two statements describe how traffic flow patterns and types of network traffic are evaluated with a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

• Capture traffic on weekends when most employees are off work.
• Capture traffic during peak hours to get a good representation of different types of traffic.
• Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive the most traffic, such as B. the data center.
• Acquisition in different segments of the network.
• Capture only WAN traffic, as web traffic makes up the bulk of data traffic on a network.

Explanation:Traffic flow patterns should be captured during peak traffic times to get a good representation of the different types of traffic. The capture also needs to be done on different segments of the network since some traffic is local to a given segment.

45. What is the consequence of configuring a router with theIPv6-Unicast-Routingglobal configuration command?

• All router interfaces are activated automatically.
• IPv6-enabled router interfaces start sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
• Each router interface generates a link-local IPv6 address.
• Statically creates a global unicast address on this router.

46. ​​Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

• Application
• Rot
• Data Connection
• meeting
• presentation
• Transport

Explanation:The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: Application, Transport, Internet, and Network Access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation and session are mapped onto the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

47. See exhibition. If PC1 sends a packet to PC2 and routing between the two routers has been configured, what does R1 do with the Ethernet frame header added by PC1?

• nothing, because the router has a route to the target network
• Open the header and use it to determine if the data should be sent S0/0/0
• Open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
• Remove the Ethernet header and put a new Layer 2 header before sending it S0/0/0

Explanation:When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data, one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address is the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address is that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 receives this information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed on (the serial connection).

48. What if the default gateway address is misconfigured on a host?

• The host cannot communicate with other hosts on the local network.
• The host cannot communicate with hosts on other networks.
• A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not succeed.
• The host must use ARP to determine the correct default gateway address.
• The switch does not forward packets initiated by the host.

49. What are the two characteristics of ARP? (Choose two.)

• When a host encapsulates a packet in a frame, it consults the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
• An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the target host's IP address and its multicast MAC address.
• When a host is ready to send a packet to a local target device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the target, it generates an ARP broadcast.
• If no device responds to the ARP request, the source node broadcasts the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
• If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

50. A network administrator adds a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN should support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest netmask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224

51. What are the two ICMPv6 messages not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)

• neighbor request
• unattainable goal
• Host Confirmation
• time exceeded
• Router Advertisement
• Route detour

52. A server receives a client packet. The packet has destination port number 80. What service is the client requesting?

• DHCP
• SMTP
• DNS
• HTTP

53. What advantage do small organizations have when adopting IMAP over POP?

• POP only allows the client to store messages centrally, while IMAP allows for distributed storage.
• Messages are stored on email servers until manually deleted from the email client.
• When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are stored on the mail server for a short time, but IMAP stores them for a longer period of time.
• IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.

Explanation:IMAP and POP are protocols for retrieving email messages. The benefit of using IMAP over POP is that copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application when the user connects to an IMAP-enabled server. IMAP stores email messages on the server until the user manually deletes them.

54. A technician can ping the IP address of a remote company's web server, but cannot successfully ping the same web server's URL. What software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

• rail
• ipconfig
• Net state
• nslookup

Explain:
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that have been successfully reached on the way from source to destination. This list may contain important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to view IP settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to determine which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query name servers to resolve a specific hostname. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution problems and check the current status of name servers.

55. What two functions are performed in the LLC sublayer of the OSI link layer to facilitate Ethernet communications? (Choose two.)

• implements CSMA/CD over legacy half-duplex shared media
• allows IPv4 and IPv6 to use the same physical medium
• integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
• implements a process for delimiting fields within an Ethernet-2 frame
• inserts information into the Ethernet frame that identifies what network layer protocol is encapsulated by the frame

Another case:

• responsible for the internal structure of the Ethernet frame
• applies source and destination MAC addresses to the Ethernet frame
• handles communication between higher layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
• adds Ethernet control information to the network protocol data
• implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection

Another case:

• integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
• inserts information into the Ethernet frame that identifies what network layer protocol is encapsulated by the frame
• implements CSMA/CD over legacy half-duplex shared media
• adds Ethernet control information to the network protocol data
• applies source and destination MAC addresses to the Ethernet frame

Another case:

• allows IPv4 and IPv6 to use the same physical medium
• adds Ethernet control information to the network protocol data
• applies source and destination MAC addresses to the Ethernet frame
• responsible for the internal structure of the Ethernet frame
• implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection

Another case:

• allows IPv4 and IPv6 to use the same physical medium
• applies source and destination MAC addresses to the Ethernet frame
• integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
• handles communication between higher layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
• responsible for the internal structure of the Ethernet frame

56. The global configuration commandStandard-Gateway-IP 172.16.100.1applies to a switch. What does this command do?

• The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
• The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
• The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from gateway 172.16.100.1.
• The switch will have a management interface at address 172.16.100.1.

Explanation:A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond your local network. On a switch, this is accomplished with the ip default-gateway command.

57. What if thessh transport entrycommand is entered in vty lines of switch?

• The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
• The switch requires a username and password combination for remote access.
• Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
• The switch requires remote connections through proprietary client software.

Explanation:Össh transport entryWhen the command is entered at the vty (Virtual Terminal Lines) switch, it encrypts all incoming controlled Telnet connections.

58. Match the nature of the threat to the cause. (Not all options are used.)

59. A disgruntled employee uses some free wireless network tools to discover information about corporate wireless networks. This person plans to use this information to hack into the wireless network. What is this attack?

• Of the
• Access
• recognition
• Troy horse

60. What service does HTTP provide?

• It uses encryption to protect text, graphics, sound and video exchanges on the Internet.
• It allows data transfers between a client and a file server.
• An application that allows real-time chats between remote users.
• A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphics, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the Internet.

61. A server receives a client packet. The packet has destination port number 67. What service is the client requesting?

• FTP
• DHCP
• Telnet
• SSH

62. Which two problems can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)

• The switches are overloaded because they concentrate the entire data traffic of the connected subnets.
• The ARP request is broadcast and floods the entire subnet.
• The network can become congested because the ARP response messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address they contain.
• A large number of ARP request and response messages can slow down the switch process, resulting in the switch making many changes to its MAC table.
• All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes in the local network.

63. Added a group of Windows PCs on a new subnet to an Ethernet network. When testing connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not Internet resources. To troubleshoot, the technician first wants to confirm the IP address and DNS settings on the PCs and also check connectivity with the local router. What are the three Windows CLI commands and utilities that will give me the information I need? (Choose three.)

• interfasa netsh ipv6 mostra vizinho
• arp-a
• rail
• pipe
• ipconfig
• nslookup
• telnet

64. During the traffic forwarding process, what does the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network in a directly connected routing table entry?

• Analyze destination IP address
• Switch package to directly connected interface
• Find the next hop address for the packet
• Dropping traffic after querying route table

65. What function does antispyware describe?

• Applications that protect end devices from infection by malware
• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network
• Software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
• A tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access to an organization's network

66. A network administrator should keep the user ID, password and session content secret when making a remote CLI connection to a switch to manage it. Which access method to choose?

• Telnet
• FOR
• SSH
• console

67. What are the two most effective ways to protect against malware? (Choose two.)

• Implement a VPN.
• Implement network firewalls.
• Implement RAID.
• Implement strong passwords.
• Update the operating system and other application software.
• Install and update antivirus software.

Explanation:A cybersecurity specialist needs to know the technologies and measures used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.

68. What kind of security threat would you be responsible for if a spreadsheet plugin disabled your local software firewall?

• Brute force attack
• Troy horse
• Of the
• buffer overflow

Explanation:A Trojan horse is software that does something malicious but is hidden within legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in disruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute force attack typically attempts to gain access to a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.

69. What framing field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal is not disturbed by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

• Log field for the user datagram
• Transport layer error checking field
• flow control panel
• Enable the String field check box
• error correction process box

70. A network administrator adds a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN should support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest netmask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

71. What service does POP3 provide?

• Retrieves emails from the server by downloading the email to the client's local email application.
• An application that allows real-time chats between remote users.
• Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
• It uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

72. Which two security solutions are most likely to be used only in an enterprise environment? (Choose two.)

• Anti-Spyware
• Virtual Private Networks
• Intrusion-Prevention-Systeme
• strong passwords
• Software-Antivirus

73. What is the function of antivirus software?

• Applications that protect end devices from infection by malware
• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network
• A tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access to an organization's network
• Software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

74. What mechanism does a router use to prevent an incoming IPv4 packet from traversing a network indefinitely?

• Checks the value of the TTL field, and if it's 0, it discards the packet and sends a destination unreachable message to the source host.
• Checks the value of the TTL field and if it's 100, it discards the packet and sends a destination unreachable message to the source host.
• Decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the originating host.
• Increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, discards the packet and sends a parameter problem message to the source host.

75. A server receives a client packet. The packet has destination port number 69. What service is the client requesting?

• DNS
• DHCP
• SMTP
• TFTP

76. An administrator has defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. What three additional steps are required to configure R1 to only accept encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

• Configure DNS on the router.
• Generate bi-directional pre-shared keys.
• Set the IP domain name on the router.
• Generate as SSH key.
• Enable incoming vty SSH sessions.
• Enable incoming telnet vty sessions.

77. What two functions are performed in the MAC sublayer of the OSI link layer to facilitate Ethernet communications? (Choose two.)

• inserts information into the Ethernet frame that identifies what network layer protocol is encapsulated by the frame
• adds Ethernet control information to the network protocol data
• responsible for the internal structure of the Ethernet frame
• allows IPv4 and IPv6 to use the same physical medium
• implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection

another case

• integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
• handles communication between higher layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
• implements CSMA/CD over legacy half-duplex shared media
• applies source and destination MAC addresses to the Ethernet frame
• applies Ethernet frame field delineation to synchronize communication between nodes

78. An IPv6-enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address FF02::2. What is the purpose of this package?

• all IPv6-enabled devices on the local link
• alle IPv6-DHCP-Server
• all IPv6-enabled devices in the network
• any IPv6 routers configured on the local link

79. What are the three parts of a global IPv6 unicast address? (Choose three.)

• Subnetz-ID
• subnet mask
• distribution address
• global routing prefix
• Interface ID

80. A client uses SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address is generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can use that IPv6 address?

• You must send a DHCPv6 INFO REQUEST message to request the DNS server address.
• You must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
• You must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine which default gateway to use.
• You must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

81. A new network administrator was asked to insert a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way for a network administrator to test whether the banner is set correctly?

• Type CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
• Exit global configuration mode.
• Turn the device off and on again.
• Restart the device.
• Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.

82. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

• tempo of the character
• CSMA/CA
• order of priority
• CSMA/CD

83. What is the function of the data link layer?

• returns data format
• provides end-to-end data transfer between hosts
• provides data transfer between two applications
• provides frame switching on a shared local medium

84. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

• to ensure that the segments arrive at their destination in the correct order
• to terminate communication when data transfer is complete
• Instruct a source to transmit data past a certain point
• require a source to reduce the rate at which it transmits data

85. What property describes spyware?

• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network
• Software installed on a user's device that collects information about the user
• an attack that slows down or crashes a device or network service
• Using stolen credentials to access private data

86. Which switching method drops frames that fail FCS verification?

• Save and continue
• limitless switching
• Buffer gives input port
• cut circuit

87. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was sent to the host's default gateway IP address and failed. The second ping was sent to a host's IP address outside the local network and was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

• The default gateway is not operational.
• The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
• Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing ping requests from being processed.
• The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.

88. What service does FTP provide?

• A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphics, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the Internet.
• An application that allows real-time chats between remote users.
• It allows data transfers between a client and a file server.
• It uses encryption to protect text, graphics, sound and video exchanges on the Internet.

89. A user tries to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. What two configuration values ​​must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

• Server-DNS
• source port number
• Server-HTTP
• Quell-Mac-Address
• Standard-Gateway

90. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or disadvantage of implementing NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

• NAT adds IPv4 authentication features.
• NAT poses problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.
• NAT negatively affects the performance of the switch.
• NAT provides a solution to delay IPv4 address exhaustion.
• NAT improves packet processing.
• NAT causes routing tables to contain more information.

91. What subnet mask is needed when an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space to avoid wasting them?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224

92. See exhibition. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. What will happen next in this scenario?

• PC2 sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.
• RT1 sends an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.
• RT1 sends an ARP reply with PC2's MAC address.
• SW1 sends an ARP reply with PC2's MAC address.
• SW1 sends an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.

Explain:
When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request contains the IP address of PC2. The target device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.

93. What service does BOOTP provide?

• It uses encryption to protect text, graphics, sound and video exchanges on the Internet.
• It allows data transfers between a client and a file server.
• Legacy application that allows a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.
• A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphics, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the Internet.

94. Which property describes the adware?

• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network
• Software installed on a user's device that collects information about the user
• Using stolen credentials to access private data
• an attack that slows down or crashes a device or network service

95. What is the advantage of using cloud computing in the network?

• The technology is built into everyday devices, allowing them to connect to other devices, making them "smarter" or more automated.
• Network resources are expanded without having to invest in new infrastructure, staff or software.
• End users are free to use personal tools to access information and communicate over a commercial network.
• Home networks use existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

96. Match an instruction to the associated network model. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server required
[+] Client and server roles are defined per request
peer to peer application
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] Background service is required

Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require a dedicated server, and devices can simultaneously assume client and server roles if needed. Because they don't require formal accounts or permissions, they're best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to run and can be used in many different situations.

97. What information does the show startup-config command display?

• copied the IOS image to RAM
• via the boot program in ROM
• the contents of the current configuration file running in RAM
• the contents of the configuration file stored in NVRAM

Explain:
The show startup-config command displays the configuration stored in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file in RAM.

98. See exhibition. What three facts can be determined from the visible output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

• Two physical interfaces have been configured.
• The switch can be managed remotely.
• A device is connected to a physical interface.
• Passwords have been configured on the switch.
• Two devices are connected to the switch.
• The default SVI has been configured.

Explain:
Vlan1 is the default SVI. Once an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is becoming more common, so a device is connected.

99. Assign each frame field type its function. (Not all options are used.)

100. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

• 2001:DA48::/64
• 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64
• 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
• 2001::/64

101. Balance the firewall's role with the type of threat protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are used.)

• Packet Filtering: Prevents access based on IP or MAC address
• URL filtering: prevents access to websites
• Network address translator - (none)
• Stateful Packet Inspection: Prevents unwanted incoming sessions
• Application Filtering: Prevent access by port number

102. Users report increased delays in authentication and accessing network resources at certain times of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to determine if this situation is part of normal network behavior?

• Syslog messages and logs
• Network performance baseline
• Debug output and packet captures
• network configuration files

103. Which property describes a VPN?

• Software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
• Software that detects fast-moving threats
• A tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access to an organization's network
• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network

104. When comparing IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

• The IPv4 source address field name is preserved in IPv6.
• The IPv4 version field is not preserved in IPv6.
• The destination address field is new in IPv6.
• IPv4 header checksum field name is preserved in IPv6.
• The Time to Live field in IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

105. A network administrator wants to have the same netmask for all networks in a particular small location. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP Phone – 22 The address
PC: 20 addresses required
Printer: 2 addresses required
Scanner: 2 addresses required

The network administrator has determined that 192.168.10.0/24 will be the network used on this site. What single subnet mask would allow for the most efficient use of the addresses available for use on all four subnets?

• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.252
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.224

106. What is the benefit of using a protocol defined by an open standard?

• One company can monopolize the market.
• The protocol can only run on devices from a specific vendor.
• An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
• It encourages competition and encourages selection.

Explain:
The monopoly of a company is not a good idea from the user's point of view. When a protocol can only run on one brand, it becomes difficult to have mixed teams on a network. A proprietary protocol cannot be used for free. An open standard protocol is generally implemented by a wide range of vendors.

107. A network administrator adds a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN should support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest netmask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224

108. What are the three commonly followed standards for cable construction and installation? (Choose three.)

• Cost Per Meter (Foot)
• cable lengths
• plug color
• Pinagen
• connector types
• Tensile strength of the plastic insulator

109. See exhibition. What is wrong with the ending shown?

• The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
• The wrong connector type is being used.
• The untwisted length of each strand is too long.
• The cables are too thick for the plug used.

Explanation:When assembling a cable for an RJ-45 connector, make sure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath that surrounds the wires is crimped and not frayed. None of the colored wires should be visible at the bottom of the connector.

110. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.)

111. A server receives a client packet. The packet has destination port number 143. What service is the client requesting?

• IMAP
• FTP
• SSH
• Telnet

112. What are the two common properties of TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

• normal window size
• offline communication
• port numbering
• 3-way handshake
• Ability to transmit digitized speech
• Using the checksum

Explain:
Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and route the right data segments to the right applications. Both protocols perform header and data error checking using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of received data. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses Windows to regulate the amount of traffic sent before an acknowledgment is received. UDP is connectionless and the best protocol for transmitting digitized VoIP signals.

113. What value contained in an IPv4 header field is discarded by each router that receives a packet?

• Header-Long
• Differentiated Services
• time to live
• fragment shift

Explanation:When a router receives a packet, the router decrements the Time to Live (TTL) field by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving router discards the packet and sends an ICMP timeout message to the sender.

114. A server receives a client packet. The packet has destination port number 21. What service is the client requesting?

• FTP
• LDAP
• speech therapist
• SNMP

115. Which attribute of a NIC would place it at the link layer of the OSI model?

• Ethernet cable connected
• IP Address
• MAC-Address
• Puerto RJ-45
• TCP/IP-Protokollstack

116. A network administrator adds a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN should support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest netmask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

117. A user runs a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router that is in the path to the destination device stop forwarding the packet?

• when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
• when the RTT reaches zero
• when the host replies with an ICMP Echo Reply message
• when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
• when the values ​​of the Echo Request and Echo Reply message reach zero

Explain:
When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router does not forward the packet and sends an ICMP timeout message to the source.

118. See exhibition. The network administrator has assigned an address range of 192.168.10.0 to the LBMISS LAN. This address range has been divided into subnets with the prefix /29. To accommodate a new building, the engineer decided to use the fifth subnet to configure the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). According to company policy, the router interface always gets the first usable host address and the workgroup server gets the last usable host address. Which settings must be made in the properties of the workgroup server to enable an Internet connection?

• IP Address: 192.168.10.65 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240, Default Gateway: 192.168.10.76
• IP Address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240, Default Gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP Address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248, Default Gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP Address: 192.168.10.41 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248, Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46
• IP Address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0, Default Gateway: 192.168.10.1

Explain:
Using a /29 prefix for the 192.168.10.0 subnet will increase the subnets by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)

119. See exhibition. The switches are in their default settings. Host A needs to communicate with Host D, but Host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by Host A?

• Host D only
• Only R1 Router
• only hosts A, B and C
• it barely hosts A, B, C and D
• only hosts B and C
• only hosts B, C and router R1

Explain:
Since Host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP table, Host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to all devices on the local network. Hosts B, C and router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.

120. What are the two types of traffic using Real Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)

• Video
• Rot
• file transfer
• Voice
• from peer to peer

121. What wireless technology has low data rates and power requirements that make it popular in home automation applications?

• ZigBee
• LoRaWAN
• 5G
• W-lan

122. Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a path for routing messages across a network?

• Application
• network access
• Internet
• Transport

Explain:
The network layer of the OSI model corresponds directly to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model and is used to describe protocols that address and route messages over a network.

123. What kind of server relies on record types like A, NS, AAAA, and MX to provide services?

• DNS
• Email
• archive
• Rot

124. What are proprietary protocols?

• Protocols developed by private organizations to work on hardware from any vendor
• Logs that are free to use by any organization or provider
• Protocols developed by organizations that have control over their definition and operation
• a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

Explain:
Proprietary protocols are defined and operated by a company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission of the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.

125. What service does DNS provide?

• Resolves domain names like cisco.com to IP addresses.
• A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphics, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the Internet.
• It allows data transfers between a client and a file server.
• It uses encryption to protect text, graphics, sound and video exchanges on the Internet.

126. A server receives a client packet. The packet has the destination port number 110. What service is the client requesting?

• DNS
• DHCP
• SMTP
• POP3

127. What command can be used on a Windows PC to view the IP settings of that computer?

• Show summary of IP interface
• pipe
• Mostrar Interfaces
• ipconfig

128. A wired laser printer is connected to a home computer. This printer has been shared so other computers on the home network can use it. Which network model is used?

• customer oriented
• slave owner
• point to point
• Point to Point (P2P)

Explanation:Peer-to-Peer (P2P) networks feature two or more network devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.

129. What property describes a virus?

• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network
• Using stolen credentials to access private data
• an attack that slows down or crashes a device or network service
• malicious software or code running on a device

130. Three bank employees use the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company website and read some announcements. The second employee accesses the company database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee is on an important live conference call with other company leaders in the branches. When QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest for the different types of data?

• Financial transactions, website, conference call
• Conference call, financial transactions, website
• Financial transactions, audio conference, website
• Conference call, website, financial transactions

Explanation:QoS mechanisms allow queuing strategies to be set up that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Therefore, this queue allows voice data to take precedence over transactional data, which takes precedence over web data.

131. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)

132. See exhibition. If Host1 transfers a file to the server, which layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

• only applications and internet layers
• Internet and network access layers only
• only applications, internet and network access levels
• Application, transport, internet and network access layers
• Application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers only
• Application, session, transport, network, data link and physical layers

Explanation:The TCP/IP model includes application, transport, Internet, and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer protocol. Data would flow from the application layer through all model layers and over the network to the file server.

133. Adapt function to routing method. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation:A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame and checks its CRC and frame length before forwarding it. A cut-through switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field, resulting in less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame may begin forwarding before it is fully received, the switch may transmit a runt frame. All forwarding methods require a layer 2 switch to forward transmission frames.

134. See exhibition. Which device interface IP address should be used as default gateway configuration of H1 host?

• R1: S0/0/0
• R2: S0/0/1
• R1: G0/0
• R2: S0/0/0

135. What service does Internet Messenger provide?

• An application that allows real-time chats between remote users.
• Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
• Resolves domain names like cisco.com to IP addresses.
• It uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

136. See exhibition. Assign the correct IP address and prefix to the network that meets the usable host addressing requirements for each network.

Explanation:Network A must use 192.168.0.128/25, resulting in 128 host addresses.
Network B must use 192.168.0.0 /26, resulting in 64 host addresses.
Network C must use 192.168.0.96/27, resulting in 32 host addresses.
Network D must use 192.168.0.80/30, which generates 4 host addresses.

137. See exhibition. Which protocol was responsible for building the table shown?

• DHCP
• ARP
• DNS
• ICMP

138. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cables are transmitting corrupted and distorted data signals. New wiring was installed in the ceiling, along with fluorescent lighting and electrical equipment. What two factors can disrupt copper cabling and lead to signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

• Diafonie
• extended cable length
• RFI​
• EMI
• signal attenuation

139 A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but it currently has no mappings in its ARP cache. How does the device get a destination MAC address?
A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in the ARP cache. How does the device get a destination MAC address?

• It forwards the frame and uses its own MAC address as the destination.
• It sends an ARP request to the target device's MAC address.
• It sends the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
• It sends a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
• It sends an ARP request to the default gateway's MAC address.

140. What two functions are performed in the MAC sublayer of the OSI link layer to facilitate Ethernet communications?

• integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
• allows IPv4 and IPv6 to use the same physical medium
• handles communication between higher layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
• adds Ethernet control information to the network protocol data
• implements CSMA/CD over legacy half-duplex shared media

141. A server receives a client packet. The packet has destination port number 53. What service is the client requesting?

• DNS
• NetBIOS (NetBT)
• POP3
• IMAP

142. A network administrator adds a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN should support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest netmask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

143. What quality describes a Trojan horse?

• malicious software or code running on a device
• an attack that slows down or crashes a device or network service
• Using stolen credentials to access private data
• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network

144. What service does HTTPS provide?

• It uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
• Resolves domain names like cisco.com to IP addresses.
• It uses encryption to protect text, graphics, sound and video exchanges on the Internet.
• Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

145. A technician with a PC uses various applications while connected to the Internet. How can the PC keep up with the flow of data between different application sessions and ensure that each application receives the correct flow of packets?

• Data flow is tracked using the destination MAC address of the technician PC.
• Data flow is tracked based on the source port number used by each application.*
• Data flow is tracked using the source IP address used by the technician PC.
• Data flow is tracked using the destination IP address used by the technician PC.

Explanation:
An application's source port number is randomly generated and used to individually track each session connecting to the Internet. Each application uses a unique source port number to provide concurrent communication for multiple applications over the Internet.

146. A network administrator adds a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN should support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest netmask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.128

147. See exhibition. Assign the correct IP address and prefix to the network that meets the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

Questions

responder

Explanation:
Network A must use 192.168.0.0 /25, resulting in 128 host addresses.
Network B must use 192.168.0.128/26, resulting in 64 host addresses.
Network C must use 192.168.0.192/27, resulting in 32 host addresses.
Network D must use 192.168.0.224/30, which generates 4 host addresses.

148. Which characteristic describes a DoS attack?

• Using stolen credentials to access private data
• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network
• Software installed on a user's device that collects information about the user
• an attack that slows down or crashes a device or network service

149. Map application protocols to the correct transport protocols

150. What service does SMTP provide?

• It allows clients to send emails to one email server and servers to send emails to other servers.
• Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
• It uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
• An application that allows real-time chats between remote users.

151. Match an instruction to the associated network model. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server required
[+] Client and server roles are defined per request
peer to peer application
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] Background service is required

Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require a dedicated server, and devices can simultaneously assume client and server roles if needed. Because they don't require formal accounts or permissions, they're best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to run and can be used in many different situations.

152. Map the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

• Questions
  
• responder
  

153. See exhibition. A network engineer was given a network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused in the four subnets?

• 88
• 200
• 72
• 224
• 158

154. Which connector is used in twisted pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

True answer:

155. A server receives a client packet. The packet has destination port number 22. What service is the client requesting?

• SSH
• PYME/CIFS
• HTTPS
• speech therapist

156. Which property describes an IPS?

• A tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access to an organization's network
• A network device that filters access and traffic entering a network
• Software that detects fast-moving threats
• Software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

157. What service does DHCP provide?

• An application that allows real-time chats between remote users.
• Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
• Dynamically assign IP addresses to endpoints and intermediaries.
• It uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

158. Match the header field to the appropriate OSI model layer. (Not all options are used.)

159. See exhibition. Switches have default settings. Host A needs to communicate with Host D, but Host A does not have the MAC address for the default gateway. Which network devices receive the ARP request sent by Host A?

• Host D only
• it barely hosts A, B, C and D
• only hosts B and C
• only hosts B, C and router R1
• only hosts A, B and C
• Only R1 Router

160. What wireless technology has low power requirements and low data rate that make it popular in IoT environments?

• Bluetooth
• Zigbee
• WiMAX
• W-lan

Explanation:Zigbee is a specification used for low-power, low-data-rate communications. It is designed for applications that require short range, low data rates, and long battery life. Zigbee is typically used for industrial and Internet of Things (IoT) environments such as B. wireless light switches and data collection from medical devices.

161. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What does this command do?

• The switch will have a management interface at address 172.16.100.1.
• The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
• The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
• The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from gateway 172.16.100.1.

Explanation:A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond your local network. On a switch, this is accomplished with the ip default-gateway <ip address> command.